0 of 150 questions completed
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading…
You must sign in or sign up to start the test.
You must first complete the following:
0 of 150 questions answered correctly
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 point(s), (0)
Earned Point(s): 0 of 0, (0)
0 Essay(s) Pending (Possible Point(s): 0)
|Table is loading|
|No data available|
‘Rule against perpetuity’ given under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not affect any rule of
Standing Timbers under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 are
Instrument under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means
For valid attestation of an instrument under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, it is necessary that
A has a wife B and a Son C. C in consideration of Rs. 5 lakhs paid to him by his mother B executes a deed by a registered instrument releasing his share of inheritance to A’s property. A dies and C claims his share in A’s property. Which of the following is correct?
A agrees to sell to B a certain quantity of gunny bags deliverable on a future day. Before the due date, B assigns his beneficial interest in the contract to C. A commits a breach of contract. Which of the following is correct?
Provision based on doctrine of acceleration under the. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is
A owns two adjoining properties X and Y. A sells the property X to B and imposes a condition that for the more beneficial enjoyment of the property Y, B shall keep open a portion of property X and will not build upon it. Which of the following is correct?
A makes a gift of land to B. C sues A for possession of the land. While the suit is pending, B transfers the land to D. A dies and C obtains a decree for possession against B as legal representative of A. Is D’s title affected by the rule of lis pendens so as to be subject of C’s decree?
Handing over the possession of mortgaged property is required in
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Relief from Equity Court could be obtained
Equity Court could be approached
An equitable interest is an interest recognised by
A transfers Rs. 10,000 in four percent to B, in trust to pay the interest annually accruing due to C for her life. A dies. Then C dies. Which of the following is correct?
Where the trust property consists of money and cannot be applied immediately or at an early date to the purposes of the trust, the trustee is bound (subject to any direction contained in the instrument of trust) to invest the money on the specified securities and on no others. Which Section of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 contains this provision?
Which of the following Sections of the Indian Trust Act deals with liability for breach of trust?
The words and expressions used in the Specific Relief Act, but not defined in the Act, have meaning as defined in the
Which of the following Sections of the Specific Relief Act deals with recovery of specific movable property?
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other is
Communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor
A ‘tender’ is
An agreement in restraint of marriage is
In order to convert a proposal into a promise
A proposal can be revoked by the proposer
Which one of the following is correct?
A valid contract at the initial stage ceases to be enforceable subsequently due to intervention of unforeseen factors. The contract will
In Indian Law, a wagering contract is
A person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody is subject to responsibility in the same way as a/an
An agency under the Contract Act is terminated by
The liability of the surety under the contract of guarantee is
A agrees to sell a horse of worth Rs. 5,000 for Rs. 1,000 to B. A’s consent to the agreement was freely given. The agreement is
Which one is the famous case related with the general offer?
Consent will be said to be free, when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation and mistake. The term `free consent’ has been defined In which Section of the Contract Act?
Which statement is correct for an act of tort?
A tort is a breach of duty, which is
Who said that liability in law of tort arises only when the wrong is covered by any one or the other nominated tort?
Qui tacit per alium Tacit per se, a maxim in law of tort, is related with which act of tort?
In a suit for damages on the ground of malicious prosecution, what is required to be proved by the plaintiff?
The maxim ubi jus lbi remedium means
Which one of the following famous cases is related to an exception to the application of the doctrine of volenti non fit injuria based on `rescue’ cases?
In which case, the principle of absolute liability was laid down?
Res ipsa loquituris a rule of
The standard of care required on the part of defendant in the tort of `negligence’ is of
The rule regarding the principle of negligence was laid down in the leading case of
Where a person wilfully and without any justification is dealing with the goods in such a manner that another person, who is entitled to its immediate use and possession of the same, is deprived of that, is known as
For application of the rule of strict liability, which of the following essentials is required?
Which statement is correct?
The leading case in which the test of directness for determining the remoteness of damages was finally established in
In a contract for the sale of specific goods, if at the time of the contract the goods have, without the knowledge of the seller, perished, then
In an agreement to sell the goods on the terms that the price is to be fixed by the valuation of a third party but such third party fails to make the valuation, then
Sohan, a fraudulent person posing himself a respectable person, purchased a valuable ring from Mohan, a shopkeeper by giving him a cheque. The cheque was dishonoured but before the fraud could be detected, Sohan pledged the ring with Rohan who acted in good faith and without notice of Sohan’s defect of title. What is the correct position?
A, a toy dealer, displayed in his shop window some plastic toy catapults. B, a child of six years of age, was attracted to the toys and one plastic toy catapult was bought from the shop after discussion with the shopkeeper. While the child was using it, the toy catapult broke off and entered the left eye of the child which had to be removed. The case is filed against the seller for damages. There is contention that
A sold the goods on credit to B and delivered the goods to the buyer’s shipping agent who had put them on board a ship. However, the goods were returned to the seller for repacking. When the goods were still with the seller, the buyer became insolvent. The seller being unpaid refuses to return the goods. Examine the following options and decide the correct one.
In negotiable instruments, the great element of negotiability is the acquisition of property by party’s own conduct and not by another’s, i.e., if you take it bona fide and for value, nobody can deprive you of it. Which one of the following is the authority of this proposition?
The law requires that every party to a negotiable instrument must be capable of contracting according to the law of the contract. What happens when a minor becomes party to the instrument as drawer or maker or indorser?
Where an instrument requires indorsement and it has been indorsed, then what is the rule creating liability on it among the following options?
Which of the following options is not correct? A bill of exchange may have to be presented for acceptance before it is prescribed for payment. Presentment for acceptance is necessary only where
When the holder of the cheque receives information from the bank that the cheque has been dishonoured, he should make a demand by giving a notice in writing to the drawer of the cheque for payment of the money
A small company may be one whose turnover as per its last Profit and Loss Account did not exceed ……………………… of such higher amount as may be prescribed which cannot be more than …………………..
Inactive company means a company which has not been carrying on any business or has not filed financial statements and annual returns during
The Companies Act, 2013 has provided that in listed companies, appointment of independent directors is mandatory and the independent directors will be appointed
The Companies Act, 2013 has done a tremendous job by providing Company’s Social Responsibility (CSR) as a mandatory activity. A company has to comply with mandatory CSR norms where
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal consists of judicial and technical members. The Chairperson is one who is or has been a judge of the Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of a High Court. The maximum number of members in the NCLAT has been provided as
A, B and C enter into an agreement for partnership at will. .The partnership deed contains the following provisions. Which one of the following provisions of the deed is inconsistent with partnership at will?
By implied authority, each partner binds all other partners by his acts in all matters which are within the scope and objects of partnership. In a partnership of general commercial nature, which of the following is not within the implied authority of partners?
If a person who is minor according to the law to which he is subject is admitted to the benefits of a partnership, it is claimed that
Where a partner becomes insolvent, he ceases to be partner in the firm
A, B and C enter Into an agreement for partnership in which C remains a sleeping partner. It is found that C is in adulterous relationship with B’s wife. What is the correct line of action?
Communication made ‘without prejudice’ is protected
‘Necessity rule’ as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in
Delhi High \ Court issued guidelines for the protection of witnesses in
A prosecutes B for adultery with C, A’s wife. B denies that C is A’s wife, but the court convicts B of adultery. Afterwards, C is prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B during A’s lifetime. C says that she never was A’s wife. The judgment against B is
Which of the following chapters of the Indian Evidence Act deals with ‘witnesses’?
Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act was omitted by the Amendment Act of 2002?
Which of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 defines the term `judicial proceeding’?
In which of the following cases, the Suprenlie Court has issued specific guidelines regarding arrest?
What is the maximum amount of maintenance which can be ordered by a Magistrate as monthly allowance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
Under Section 164A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the victim of rape shall be sent to registered medical practitioner for examination within from the time of receiving the information relating to the commission of such offence
Which of the following Sub-sections was/were inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 in Section 176 of Cr.P.C.?
The period of limitation prescribed in the Code of Criminal Procedure is not applicable to the offences under
The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Acts, 1999 and 2002 were enacted on the recommendations of
Which of the following landmark judgments of the Supreme Court deals with the applicability of res judicata in writ petitions?
A court can return the plaint, when the court has got
The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on
The provision for setting aside the arbitral award is laid down under
The parties to the arbitration agreement shall appoint arbitrator within
The decrees or orders made by Small Causes Court are revisable by
Who is authorised to abolish Courts of Small Causes?
In which of the following cases, it was contended that the Preamble to our Constitution should be the guiding star in its interpretation and hence any law made under the Article 21 should be held as void if it offended against the principles of natural justice?
Which of the following cases upheld ‘secularism’ as a basic feature of the Indian Constitution even before the word ‘secular’ was inserted in the Preamble?
In which of the following cases, the consensus of the majority of the judgment was that the basic structure of the Constitution could not be destroyed or damaged by amending the Constitution in exercise of the power under the Article 368 of the Indian Constitution?
A person who or whose father was not born in the territory of India but “who (a) has his domicile ‘in the territory of India’, and (b) has been ordinarily residing ‘within the territory of India’ for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution” is considered as Indian citizen. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes it?
Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution which was inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a Constitution Amendment Act, passed according to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution is a law within the meaning of Article 13 and would, accordingly be void if it contravenes a fundamental right. This amendment was declared void in which of the following cases?
Which of the following is an essential part of rule of law and independence of judiciary?
The test of reasonableness is not a wholly test and its contours are fairly indicated by the Constitution
Taxation is a/an ………………………….. power of the State and there is no fundamental right to be immune from taxation.
‘Protection in respect of conviction for offences’ is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
According to Clause (1) of Article 25 of the It Alan Constitution, the freedom of religion is subject to the interest of
Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of the post of the Prime Minister in India?
A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of the Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Schedule.
Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from their office by
Which of the following has been held to be questions of fact and not of law?
The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the
Which among the following has the power to extend functions of the State Public Service Commission?
While a proclamation of emergency is in operation:
(I) the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised
(II) the power of the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter shall include the power to make laws on the subject which is not enumerated in the Union List.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
The Governor must remain conscious of his constitutional obligations and not sacrifice either political responsibility or parliamentary conventions on the altar of :political expediency’. In which of the following cases, the constitutional obligations of the Governor were mentioned?
“Administrative Law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of the administrative authorities.” Who among the following jurists has given the above definition?
State the similarity between constitutional and administrative laws
The privilege to withhold the documents/ information under the administrative law is enacted in which of the following Sections of the Evidence Act?
According to Dicey, the meaning of the rule of law may be discussed under which of the following heads?
K.C. Davis in his book, Administrative Law gave several meanings of the term `rule of law’. Choose the correct option accordingly.
The doctrine of ‘separation of powers’ can be explained by which of the following?
In modern States, the executive function is further classified as quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial, ministerial and purely administrative functions. This observation is based on which of the following cases?
Delegated legislation in India can be decided for post-Constitution period. This was held by
Choose the function which cannot be delegated under the administrative law.
What is the disadvantage in delegated legislations?
Conditional legislation under the administrative law is
“The principle of natural justice is one procedural rule for the administrative action.” Considering the above statement, which of the following is/are justified?
The courts in almost all the democratic countries enjoyed the power to decide the validity of the delegated legislation under the administrative law and apply the test. The above is related to which of the following?
The rule against bias can be discussed under the following heads: (I) Pecuniary bias (II) Personal bias (III) Bias as to subject-matter. The personal bias is decided by the Supreme Court under which of the following cases?
Habeas corpus literally means ‘have the corpus’ or ‘bring the body’. Under which case, habeas corpus was not be issued?
The essential of audi alteram partem is
What is the essential condition of mandamus?
According to the constitutional provisions regarding contractual liability of the State, which of the following conditions must be fulfilled in order to make a contract valid, in which the government is a party?
“Tribunals deal with the service matter only.” Choose the correct option among the following which is true for the above statement.
What is the qualification of Ombudsman?
Hindu Law is
The ancient source(s) of the Hindu Law is/ are
Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for
Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, ‘judicial separation’ has been provided?
Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with the legitimacy of the children of
A Hindu marriage may be solemnized according to the customary rites and ceremonies of
‘Son’, in Class I of the Schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, does not include
Which of the following is correct under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 for the surviving sons, surviving daughters and mother of the male intestate?
Under Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired by her before or after the commencement of this Act, shall be held by her as a
According to the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, ‘minor’ means a person who has not completed his or her age of
A female Hindu who is major and is of sound mind is legally capable to take in adoption, a son or a daughter, if
A junior male member of a Hindu undivided family may be its Warta’
What are the main sources of the Muslim Law?
By which man a Muslim lady may legally marry?
With whom a “Shia’ Muslim man is entitled to perform a temporary marriage, i.e., ‘Mute’?
Whether a Muslim may give `Talaq’ in the state of intoxication or under pressure?
By the third pronouncement (utterance) of `Talaq’, which kind of `Talaq’ becomes effective?
Acknowledgement of paternity once made under Muslim Law
In whose custody, the Muslim illegitimate children will be kept?
Which of the following gifts is not valid?