UGC NET Paper Mock Test 1 [Paper II]

Match the following:
(I) Act of 1858 1. Minto Morley reforms
(II) Indian Council Act, 1909 2. British Crown assumes Power
(III) Government of India Act, 1919 3. Provincial autonomy
(IV) Government of India Act, 1935 4. Dyarchy

The Competition Act 2002, prohibits the imposition of unfair or discriminatory:

Consider the following statements.
To constitute abetment, it is
1. necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
2. not necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
3. necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.

Which of the statements given above represent(s) the correct position of law?

Match List I with List II and give the correct answer with the help of codes given:
List I List II (Provisions of Hindu Marriage Act)
A. Impotency (i) Section 12(1)(d)
B. Registration of Marriage (ii) Section 12 (1)(b)
C. Pre-marriage pregnancy (iii) Section 8
D. Incapacity to consent & mental disorder (iv) Section 12(1)(a)

The statutory formulation of director’s duties under Companies Act, 2013 have been spelt out in:

Consider the following statements: The High Court has jurisdiction to:
1. Punish for its contempt.
2. Tender advice on the legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State.
3. Tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the Governor of the state.
4. Issue certain writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights or for other purposes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Assertion (A): The rule making power of the Supreme Court is not subject to any law made by the Parliament of India.
Reason (R): Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of the individual without fear or favour.

The protection of Article 20(3) is not available to:

Which of the following was not amended by the National Green Tribunal Act?

Principles of natural justice are NOT applicable in which of the following cases?

In Paquete Habana case which of the following judgements were made by the court?
1. International law is a part of the law of the United States.
2. The fishing vessels are exempt from capture during war.
3. In no circumstances fishing vessels could be destroyed.
4. The works and opinions of the Jurists could be restored to for the evidence of customs and usages.

Select the correct answer from the codes:

The best evidence for the existence of international law is that every state recognises that it does not exist and that it is itself under obligation to observe it. Above statement is given by:

Jus gentium is:

Zina in Mohammedan law means:

Which provision of the Wildlife Act deals with the declaration of National Park?

A company shall be deemed to be unable to pay its debts:

What is the required period to file a complaint under Consumer Protection Act, 1986?

Consent is free under section 14, Indian Contract Act, if not caused by:

Which one of the following is sufficient to prove the offence of sedition?

Which one is not a source of Muslim Law?

What is the position, in Indian context, to get a hold of copyright on a copy edited judgment?

Which section deals with the punishment for the abetment of offences under Information Technology Act?

Which theory of legal personality contemplates that the law is the only source from which legal personality of corporation may flow?

Acquisition of ‘res nullius’ is:

The Administrative tribunal have been recognised under which of the following articles of the constitution?

A contract discharged by:

Which of the following cases is known as “High Water-mark case in forest protection” ?

When somebody receives a stolen smartphone or laptop, under which section of the Information Technology Act he can be prosecuted?

Law grows with the nation, increases with it, and dies with its dissolution and it is a characteristic or it. It is said by:

Lachman Uttam Chand Kriplani v. Meena is related to:

What is the age of Puberty for a Muslim marriage?

Which of the following organisations deals with the “International Economic Law” ?

Who can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act,1986?

In Indian Contract Act , contingent contract is defined under:

Section 84 of Indian Penal Code is based on:

Which case relates to the issue of sample taking procedure under Water Act?

The guarantee contained in Article 29(1) is with respect to right to conserve distinct:

93rd amendment of the Constitution of India deals with:

A motion that seeks to reduce the amount of demand presented by government to Rs 1 is known as:

Son in Class I of the Schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 does not include:

In which case the European Court of Human Rights held that “an individual is as much a subject of international law as a state is”:

Which of the following is not a form of reparation for the injury caused by internationally wrongful act in the ILC Draft Code on responsibility of states for internationally wrongful acts of 2001?

Which convention lays down the material element for recognition of a State?

What is the effect of Judicial Separation on marital relation under Hindu Marriage Act?

The guardianship of the property of the minor under Muslim law is categorised into:

Assertion [A]: International Law is a weak legal system of jurisprudence.
Reason [R] : International law has no enforcement mechanism.

Which of the following principles/doctrines supports the idea of sustainable development in Environmental Law?

A’ pulled an earring away from a woman’s ear and thereby tore and wounded her ear. ‘A is guilty of:

The maxim “actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” means:

Which doctrine is based on the legal maxim that “what cannot be done directly, cannot also be done indirectly”?

The speaker of Lok Sabha:

The first five year plan was launched in India in the year?

An agreement in restraint of trade is valid under section 27 of Indian Contract Act if relates to:

WTO came into being on ?

If the jural correlative of “Right” is “Duty”, then the co-relative of “Liberty” is:

Who among the following is considered an exponent of Utilitarianism?

According to Kelsen’s theory, the validity of a norm is based on:

Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of “social engineering” which means:

How many witnesses are necessary in Shia Muslim marriage?

Karta of a Hindu joint family has been defined in:

The term “Legally Binding” in Oppenheim’s definition connotes:

Which of the following basic norm was enacted by Kelson?

According to professor Goodhart, a ratio decidendi of a case is:

Savigny has observed that:
1. Custom precedes legislation.
2. Legislation must conform customary practices.
3. Custom is not important than legislation.
4. Custom is superior to legislation.
Select the best option:

Assertion (A) – It is easy to identify sociological school with Pound.
Reason (R) – Sociological school neither begins nor ends with Pound.

How did Aristotle describe justice in restoring equality when this has been disturbed?

As per the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988, minimum experience of driving a light motor vehicle is required before a person can be granted a license for transport vehicle is of:

Which of these is a case where time was held to be the essence of contract and even slight delay rendered promisor liable to compensation?

Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer:

In which of the following cases a claim is not enforceable on the ground of quantum meruit?

According to Salmond, legal sources of law:
1. Are recognised as such by the law itself.
2. Lack formal recognition by the law.
3. Operate immediately.
4. Are only gates through which new principles can find entrance into law.

Which of the following statements are correct?

Which of the following relates to the notice of protest under section 102 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

Under Muslim law, a marriage forbidden by reason of affinity is:

The rule of unanimity contained in Partnership Act has a reference to:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 has been made under which provision of the constitution?

What amount of distinctiveness is require to register a trademark?

The vicarious liability of principal is based on the maxim:

To constitute joint tortfeasors there must be:

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Following are good defences to an action in tort:
1. Volenti non fit injuria
2. Scienti non fit injuria
3. Vis major
Choose the best option:

A transferee of the partner’s interest in the firm:

When an act is abetted and a different act is done by the person instigated, the abettor is liable for the act done in the same manner and to the same extent as if he had directly abetted it, provided:
1. The act was done with the aid or in pursuance of the conspiracy which constituted the abatement.
2. The act done was a probable consequence of the abetment irrespective of being committed under the influence of instigation.
3. The abettor had reasonable ground to believe that a different act may be committed.

Which of the above is correct?

The duty under the law of torts is:

Section 23 of Hindu Marriage Act provides for:

The doctrine of ‘absolute liability’ was propounded in:

Human rights include:

The word ‘nuisance’ is derived from:

The ‘tort of inducement in a breach of contract’ finds it origin in:

Which of the following is not defamation in Indian law?

An act ultra vires to the memorandum of association:

Questions 91-95 are based on the excerpt/passage given below:

“Conclusion and Recommendations: The preceding chapters highlight that acid attacks are an increasing phenomenon in India. However, since no special section in the Indian Penal Code deals with acid attacks, the incidents are not even recorded separately. Section 326 of the I.P.C, which deals with causing grievous hurt by throwing of a corrosive substance etc. is insufficient/ inadequate to deal with the issue. Firstly, the definition of grievous hurt is not broad enough to cover the various kinds of injuries which are inflicted during acid attacks. Secondly, the section does not cover the act of administering acid. Thirdly, the section gives a wide discretion to the courts as far as punishment is concerned. The cases on acid attacks in India show that normally inadequate punishment is awarded in these cases. Fourthly, the section in the I.P.C does not punish the intentional act of throwing of acid if no injuries occur. Lastly, the section also does not specify who the fine should be awarded to.”

(Source: Law commission of India report on “The Inclusion of Acid Attacks as Specific Offences in the Indian Penal Code and a law for Compensation for Victims of Crime”)

Q. Which of the following Law Commission report deals with “The Inclusion of Acid Attacks as Specific Offences in the Indian Penal Code and a law for Compensation for Victims of Crime” ?

In which case, Law commission was arrayed as respondent which lead to the submission of the abovementioned report?

Which of the following sections deals with “hurting with acid attacks”?

Which of the following sections make “throwing acid or attempting acid attack” punishable?

Criminal Injuries Compensation Board can be setup to compensate such acid attack victims under:

Questions 96-100 are based on the excerpt/passage given below:

“Aggrieved by the same, the Petitioners approached this Court under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ for setting aside or quashing any and all order(s), notification(s), direction(s) and/or circular(s) issued by the Respondents under which any/all modes of communication including internet, mobile and fixed line telecommunication services have been shut down or suspended or in any way made inaccessible or unavailable in any locality. Further, the Petitioners sought the issuance of an appropriate writ or direction directing Respondents to immediately restore all modes of communication including mobile, internet and landline services throughout Jammu and Kashmir in order to provide an enabling environment for the media to practice its profession.”

The above excerpt has been taken from which of the following judgments?

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?

Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 were deleted and Article 300-A was inserted by the following Constitutional Amendment Act?

Which of the Fundamental Rights was recently included as per the 86th Amendment of the Constitution?

The doctrine of prospective overruling in relation to the powers of the Parliament to amend the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution was applied in?